News Behind 2026 Prelims PYQ
Every question here started as a headline — with the story, date, and full analysis.
Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change :
I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?
- Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
- Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
- Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When 7.93% Drop in GHG Emissions: India’s Progress Towards Climate Resilience was reported, it made LT-LEDS & BUR-4 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement I is Correct
India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal.
Statement II is Incorrect
While India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) does record an approximately 8% decrease in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, this decrease is attributed to the economic slowdown and lockdowns during the COVID-19 pandemic, not to structural or strategic efforts towards long-term emission reductions. Therefore, it does not empirically support the strategic framework of LT-LEDS.
Statement III is Correct
The IPCC emphasizes that climate-resilient development depends on rapid, deep, and immediate emission reductions in the short term. This approach can be seen as contradicting the long-term focus of strategies like LT-LEDS if they do not also incorporate aggressive short-term actions.
Therefore, the correct relationship is that Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making option B correct.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct relationship is that Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making option B correct.
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
- They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
News
A bridge too far? India’s only ape species gets a helping hand, but needs bigger steps
17 May 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 17 May 2026, A bridge too far? India’s only ape species gets a helping hand, but needs bigger steps put Western Hoolock Gibbon in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Statement 2 is Correct
They are highly arboreal canopy-dwellers. They move primarily through brachiation—a specialized mode of locomotion where they use their exceptionally long arms to swing swiftly and effortlessly from tree branch to tree branch.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Gibbons are classified as "lesser apes" (family Hylobatidae). Unlike "great apes" such as gorillas which possess massive, heavy builds, Hoolock gibbons are small, slender, and lightweight. Adults typically weigh only 6 to 9 kg, a physical adaptation that is essential for their remarkable aerial agility in the forest canopy.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?
- By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
- By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
- By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Vizhinjam Port was reported, it made Vizhinjam Port a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother ships offload cargo that is then distributed to other Indian ports via smaller coastal feeder vessels. Furthermore, it actively seeks to attract foreign shipping lines and global integration, rather than eliminating foreign collaborations.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
While the port has provisions for a cruise terminal, its primary focus is handling international container transshipment and multi-purpose cargo. It is not primarily focused on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.
Statement 3 is Correct
Vizhinjam leverages its natural deep draft of 18 to 24 meters, allowing it to berth Ultra Large Container Ships (ULCS) that previously bypassed Indian ports. Situated just 10 nautical miles from the busy East-West international shipping corridor, it aims to reclaim transshipment cargo historically handled by foreign hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This structural shift reduces dependence on foreign ports, retains an estimated $200 to $400 million annually in transshipment revenues, and repositions India in regional maritime trade.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
- It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
- It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
- It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
News
Satellite-tagged Amur falcons returning from Africa, set to cross India
16 May 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 16 May 2026, Satellite-tagged Amur falcons returning from Africa, set to cross India put Amur Falcons in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local communities completely stopped the hunting, turning into protectors. This safe passage earned Nagaland the title "Falcon Capital of the World."
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Scientists use advanced tracking technologies (like lightweight solar-powered satellite transmitters) to monitor and study the falcons' migration routes, stopover durations, and flight speeds. These devices collect data for researchers; they do not guide the birds. The falcons rely entirely on natural navigation and environmental cues to find their way back to stopover sites.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Amur Falcons are long-distance migratory raptors, not permanent residents of India. They breed in Siberia and Northern China and migrate annually to their wintering grounds in Southern Africa. During their approximately 22,000 km journey, they use Northeast India—specifically Doyang Lake in Nagaland—as a temporary stopover for a few weeks (October–November) to build fat reserves before undertaking a massive non-stop flight across the Arabian Sea.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?
- Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
- Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
- Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
News
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture: “Building Climate-Resilient Farming in India”
9 May 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 9 May 2026, National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture: “Building Climate-Resilient Farming in India” put Rainfed Area Development in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme explicitly promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) rather than monoculture. It integrates multi-cropping and rotational cropping with allied activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify income and build resilience. Official guidelines actively discourage single-cropping (monoculture) systems.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
As the name implies, RAD targets rainfed areas (regions lacking assured irrigation) to build resilience against climate variability. It does not focus on expanding water-intensive crops like rice in already irrigated regions.
Statement 3 is Correct
The core objective of RAD is to make rainfed agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative, and climate-resilient. By diversifying income sources through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), RAD aims to minimize the risks associated with climatic variability (such as droughts, heat stress, or floods) and crop failure, ensuring stable livelihoods for farmers.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
- It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
- It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Certification for eri silk was reported, it made Eri Silk Oeko-Tex a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The OEKO-TEX certification ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of Eri Silk and allowing Indian exporters to confidently compete in high-end international markets that prioritize sustainable, chemical-free, and ethically produced textiles.
Statement 2 is Correct
The certification confirms that a textile meets strict international safety, environmental, and human health standards. This is highly valued by buyers in premium, eco-conscious global markets, particularly in Europe and North America. Combined with its Geographical Indication (GI) status and reputation as a cruelty-free "peace silk," the certification cements Eri Silk's position as a premium eco-friendly fabric, enabling its entry into these premium markets.
Therefore, both statements are correct, making the correct option C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, both statements are correct, making the correct option C.
Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?
Nat Bhairavi
Kamavardhini
Hanumatodi
Dheera Shankarabharanam
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 3 Apr 2023, The healing raga’s lesson for us put Carnatic Raga Bilawal Q11 in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Explanation
The Indian classical music system is broadly divided into the Hindustani (North Indian) and Carnatic (South Indian) traditions. While their styles and ornamentation differ, many foundational scales share exact equivalents between the Hindustani Thaat system (codified by V.N. Bhatkhande) and the Carnatic Melakarta system.
Dheera Shankarabharanam is the correct equivalent. In Carnatic music, it is a fundamental Melakarta raga that uses all natural (shuddha) notes. Its exact equivalent in Hindustani classical music is the Bilawal Thaat (and Raga Bilawal). Both of these correspond to the Western Major scale (Ionian mode).
Nat Bhairavi is incorrect. This Carnatic raga corresponds to the Asavari Thaat in Hindustani music.
Kamavardhini is incorrect. Also known as Pantuvarali, its Hindustani equivalent is the Poorvi Thaat (specifically similar to Raga Puriya Dhanashree).
Hanumatodi is incorrect. Often simply called Todi in the South, its notes correspond to the Bhairavi Thaat in Hindustani music. (Note that Carnatic Todi is completely different from Hindustani Todi, which corresponds to Shubhapantuvarali).
Therefore, the correct option is D.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, the correct option is D.
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
- Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
- Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 7 Apr 2026, भारत सरकार: From Conservation to Climate Action put Madhav Tiger Reserve in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Madhav National Park was officially declared as India's 58th Tiger Reserve (and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh) by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025, following a successful tiger reintroduction program that began in 2023.
Statement 2 is Correct
Sakhya Sagar, a human-made reservoir created in 1918, is situated inside Madhav National Park. It was officially designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2022 and is known for its abundant marsh crocodile population and migratory waterfowl.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, situated on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands. It does not share its area with Rajasthan.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :
I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?
- Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
- Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
- Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 11 Apr 2026, Government of India put Sagarmala in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Relationship 1 is Correct
Statement I outlines the core objective of the Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, which is port-led economic development through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. Statement II provides empirical evidence of its success, such as the 118% growth in coastal shipping, a 700% surge in inland waterway cargo movement, and improved global port rankings (with nine Indian ports now in the global top 100). Thus, the tangible achievements in Statement II directly validate the effectiveness of the foundational strategies mentioned in Statement I.
Relationship 2 is Correct
Statement III highlights the goals of Sagarmala 2.0, which focuses on smart ports, green shipping, and positioning India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with the Viksit Bharat 2047 and Atmanirbhar Bharat visions. This acts as an evolutionary extension of the foundational infrastructure goals in Statement I, embedding them into a broader, future-oriented innovation framework rather than replacing them.
Relationship 3 is Incorrect
Statement I does not contradict Statement III. The initial focus on traditional and sustainable coastal infrastructure in the original Sagarmala Programme serves as the necessary physical base upon which the modern innovation and technology-driven goals of Sagarmala 2.0 are built. The two phases are complementary and represent a progressive policy evolution, not a contradiction.
Therefore, relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ?
- They acted as army fortresses.
- They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
- They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
- They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 3
3 only
2 and 4
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 22 Jul 2024, भारत सरकार: From Burial Mounds to Global Recognition put Maidams in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Moidams (or Maidams) were not used as army fortresses. They are traditional mound-burial systems (tumuli) of the Tai-Ahom religion.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
They did not serve as recreation centres for the Royals and Nobles.
Statement 3 is Correct
Moidams served exclusively as the royal necropolis (burial grounds) for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles. The vaults enshrine the mortal remains of the deceased along with cherished objects, food, horses, elephants, and historically even attendants, reflecting Tai-Ahom cosmological beliefs about the afterlife. The most prominent concentration of these is located in Charaideo, Assam, which was the first capital of the Ahom kingdom. In July 2024, they were officially inscribed as India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Statement 4 is Incorrect
They were not battle drill centres.
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?
Nat Bhairavi
Kamavardhini
Hanumatodi
Dheera Shankarabharanam
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 3 Apr 2023, The healing raga’s lesson for us put Carnatic Raga Bilawal in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Explanation
The Indian classical music system is broadly divided into the Hindustani (North Indian) and Carnatic (South Indian) traditions. While their styles and ornamentation differ, many foundational scales share exact equivalents between the Hindustani Thaat system (codified by V.N. Bhatkhande) and the Carnatic Melakarta system.
Dheera Shankarabharanam is the correct equivalent. In Carnatic music, it is a fundamental Melakarta raga that uses all natural (shuddha) notes. Its exact equivalent in Hindustani classical music is the Bilawal Thaat (and Raga Bilawal). Both of these correspond to the Western Major scale (Ionian mode).
Nat Bhairavi is incorrect. This Carnatic raga corresponds to the Asavari Thaat in Hindustani music.
Kamavardhini is incorrect. Also known as Pantuvarali, its Hindustani equivalent is the Poorvi Thaat (specifically similar to Raga Puriya Dhanashree).
Hanumatodi is incorrect. Often simply called Todi in the South, its notes correspond to the Bhairavi Thaat in Hindustani music. (Note that Carnatic Todi is completely different from Hindustani Todi, which corresponds to Shubhapantuvarali).
Therefore, the correct option is D.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, the correct option is D.
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
- Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
- Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 7 Apr 2026, भारत सरकार: From Conservation to Climate Action put Madhav Tiger Reserve Q22 in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Madhav National Park was officially declared as India's 58th Tiger Reserve (and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh) by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025, following a successful tiger reintroduction program that began in 2023.
Statement 2 is Correct
Sakhya Sagar, a human-made reservoir created in 1918, is situated inside Madhav National Park. It was officially designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2022 and is known for its abundant marsh crocodile population and migratory waterfowl.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, situated on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands. It does not share its area with Rajasthan.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :
I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?
- Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
- Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
- Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 11 Apr 2026, Government of India put Sagarmala Programme Q25 in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Relationship 1 is Correct
Statement I outlines the core objective of the Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, which is port-led economic development through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. Statement II provides empirical evidence of its success, such as the 118% growth in coastal shipping, a 700% surge in inland waterway cargo movement, and improved global port rankings (with nine Indian ports now in the global top 100). Thus, the tangible achievements in Statement II directly validate the effectiveness of the foundational strategies mentioned in Statement I.
Relationship 2 is Correct
Statement III highlights the goals of Sagarmala 2.0, which focuses on smart ports, green shipping, and positioning India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with the Viksit Bharat 2047 and Atmanirbhar Bharat visions. This acts as an evolutionary extension of the foundational infrastructure goals in Statement I, embedding them into a broader, future-oriented innovation framework rather than replacing them.
Relationship 3 is Incorrect
Statement I does not contradict Statement III. The initial focus on traditional and sustainable coastal infrastructure in the original Sagarmala Programme serves as the necessary physical base upon which the modern innovation and technology-driven goals of Sagarmala 2.0 are built. The two phases are complementary and represent a progressive policy evolution, not a contradiction.
Therefore, relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.
Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :
- It is an epiphytic orchid.
- The species is endemic to North-east India.
- It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
1 and 3
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 13 Feb 2024, Kaji nemu declared Assam’s ‘State Fruit’ put Foxtail Orchid Assam in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Rhynchostylis retusa (commonly known as the Foxtail orchid) is an epiphytic orchid. It grows on the trunks and branches of trees in open forests, using the host tree for physical support and absorbing moisture from the air, rather than acting as a parasite.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The species is not endemic to North-east India. It has a vast native range across Tropical Asia, including China, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. Within India, while it is highly prominent in the North-east, it is also naturally distributed in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and several other states.
Statement 3 is Correct
It is officially recognized as the State flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. In Assam, it is culturally significant, known locally as Kopou Phool, and is an essential part of traditional Bihu dance attire and local wedding ceremonies.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ?
- They acted as army fortresses.
- They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
- They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
- They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 3
3 only
2 and 4
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 22 Jul 2024, भारत सरकार: From Burial Mounds to Global Recognition put Moidams UNESCO in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Moidams (or Maidams) were not used as army fortresses. They are traditional mound-burial systems (tumuli) of the Tai-Ahom religion.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
They did not serve as recreation centres for the Royals and Nobles.
Statement 3 is Correct
Moidams served exclusively as the royal necropolis (burial grounds) for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles. The vaults enshrine the mortal remains of the deceased along with cherished objects, food, horses, elephants, and historically even attendants, reflecting Tai-Ahom cosmological beliefs about the afterlife. The most prominent concentration of these is located in Charaideo, Assam, which was the first capital of the Ahom kingdom. In July 2024, they were officially inscribed as India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Statement 4 is Incorrect
They were not battle drill centres.
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".
Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?
Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When UNOC3 FAO Blue Transformation was reported, it made UNOC3 FAO Blue Transformation a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations guides its global work through a strategic framework aimed at supporting the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The core organizing principle of this framework is the transformation to more efficient, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable agrifood systems to achieve the "Four Betters".
The "Four Betters" are officially defined as:
- Better Production: Ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns.
- Better Nutrition: Ending hunger, achieving food security, and improving access to healthy diets.
- Better Environment: Protecting, restoring, and promoting the sustainable use of terrestrial and marine ecosystems.
- Better Life: Promoting inclusive economic growth and reducing inequalities, leaving no one behind.
The Blue Transformation is a specific FAO vision and programmatic priority area that aims to secure and maximize the contribution of aquatic food systems (fisheries and aquaculture) to achieve these overarching "Four Betters".
Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they include fabricated pillars such as "better ocean", "better coral reefs", "better estuaries", or "better mangrove vegetation", which are not part of the FAO's official strategic framework.
Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ?
- It is the largest desert lake in the world.
- The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
- The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 22 Apr 2022, When capitalism clashes with Indigenous rights put Lake Turkana Jade Sea in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is correct
Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the world's largest alkaline lake. By volume, it is also the fourth-largest salt lake globally.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The lake is situated in the Great Rift Valley of East Africa. It lies predominantly in northern Kenya, with its northernmost tip crossing into Ethiopia. It is not located in South Sudan, nor is it associated with the Sahara Desert.
Statement 3 is correct
The Lake Turkana National Parks (comprising Sibiloi, South Island, and Central Island National Parks) are collectively designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The lake is famously nicknamed the 'Jade Sea' due to its striking turquoise/greenish-blue waters, a color produced by the abundant presence of blue-green algae (cyanobacteria).
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change :
I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?
- Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
- Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
- Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When 7.93% Drop in GHG Emissions: India’s Progress Towards Climate Resilience was reported, it made LT-LEDS BUR-4 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement I is Correct
India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal.
Statement II is Incorrect
While India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) does record an approximately 8% decrease in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, this decrease is attributed to the economic slowdown and lockdowns during the COVID-19 pandemic, not to structural or strategic efforts towards long-term emission reductions. Therefore, it does not empirically support the strategic framework of LT-LEDS.
Statement III is Correct
The IPCC emphasizes that climate-resilient development depends on rapid, deep, and immediate emission reductions in the short term. This approach can be seen as contradicting the long-term focus of strategies like LT-LEDS if they do not also incorporate aggressive short-term actions.
Therefore, the correct relationship is that Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making option B correct.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct relationship is that Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making option B correct.
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
- They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
News
A bridge too far? India’s only ape species gets a helping hand, but needs bigger steps
17 May 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 17 May 2026, A bridge too far? India’s only ape species gets a helping hand, but needs bigger steps put Western Hoolock Gibbon in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Statement 2 is Correct
They are highly arboreal canopy-dwellers. They move primarily through brachiation—a specialized mode of locomotion where they use their exceptionally long arms to swing swiftly and effortlessly from tree branch to tree branch.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Gibbons are classified as "lesser apes" (family Hylobatidae). Unlike "great apes" such as gorillas which possess massive, heavy builds, Hoolock gibbons are small, slender, and lightweight. Adults typically weigh only 6 to 9 kg, a physical adaptation that is essential for their remarkable aerial agility in the forest canopy.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?
- Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
- Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
- By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When MISHTI Mangroves Climate was reported, it made MISHTI Mangroves Climate a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Mangroves do not store freshwater, nor are they naturally suited for paddy cultivation. In fact, the clearing of mangrove forests to create agricultural land (like paddy fields) has historically been a primary driver of their destruction, rather than a reason for their protection.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Mangroves are halophytes, meaning they are highly salt-tolerant, not salt-sensitive. While their specialized root systems have ultrafiltration mechanisms to exclude salt, they do not convert coastal lands into freshwater zones. Furthermore, clearing mangroves for shrimp and aquaculture farms is a major threat to these ecosystems, not a conservation rationale.
Statement 3 is Correct
In the context of climate resilience, mangroves act as natural bio-shields. Their dense root networks (such as stilt roots and pneumatophores) stabilize coastal soils and dissipate tidal energy, protecting coasts from storm surges and cyclones. Additionally, they are highly productive ecosystems that provide sustainable biomass resources (like timber, honey, and fish breeding grounds), forming a crucial livelihood base for rural coastal communities.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?
- By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
- By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
- By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Vizhinjam Port Policy was reported, it made Vizhinjam Port Policy a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother ships offload cargo that is then distributed to other Indian ports via smaller coastal feeder vessels. Furthermore, it actively seeks to attract foreign shipping lines and global integration, rather than eliminating foreign collaborations.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
While the port has provisions for a cruise terminal, its primary focus is handling international container transshipment and multi-purpose cargo. It is not primarily focused on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.
Statement 3 is Correct
Vizhinjam leverages its natural deep draft of 18 to 24 meters, allowing it to berth Ultra Large Container Ships (ULCS) that previously bypassed Indian ports. Situated just 10 nautical miles from the busy East-West international shipping corridor, it aims to reclaim transshipment cargo historically handled by foreign hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This structural shift reduces dependence on foreign ports, retains an estimated $200 to $400 million annually in transshipment revenues, and repositions India in regional maritime trade.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
- It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
- It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
- It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
News
Satellite-tagged Amur falcons returning from Africa, set to cross India
16 May 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 16 May 2026, Satellite-tagged Amur falcons returning from Africa, set to cross India put Amur Falcons Doyang in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local communities completely stopped the hunting, turning into protectors. This safe passage earned Nagaland the title "Falcon Capital of the World."
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Scientists use advanced tracking technologies (like lightweight solar-powered satellite transmitters) to monitor and study the falcons' migration routes, stopover durations, and flight speeds. These devices collect data for researchers; they do not guide the birds. The falcons rely entirely on natural navigation and environmental cues to find their way back to stopover sites.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Amur Falcons are long-distance migratory raptors, not permanent residents of India. They breed in Siberia and Northern China and migrate annually to their wintering grounds in Southern Africa. During their approximately 22,000 km journey, they use Northeast India—specifically Doyang Lake in Nagaland—as a temporary stopover for a few weeks (October–November) to build fat reserves before undertaking a massive non-stop flight across the Arabian Sea.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?
- Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
- Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
- Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
News
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture: “Building Climate-Resilient Farming in India”
9 May 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 9 May 2026, National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture: “Building Climate-Resilient Farming in India” put Rainfed Area Development in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme explicitly promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) rather than monoculture. It integrates multi-cropping and rotational cropping with allied activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify income and build resilience. Official guidelines actively discourage single-cropping (monoculture) systems.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
As the name implies, RAD targets rainfed areas (regions lacking assured irrigation) to build resilience against climate variability. It does not focus on expanding water-intensive crops like rice in already irrigated regions.
Statement 3 is Correct
The core objective of RAD is to make rainfed agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative, and climate-resilient. By diversifying income sources through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), RAD aims to minimize the risks associated with climatic variability (such as droughts, heat stress, or floods) and crop failure, ensuring stable livelihoods for farmers.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
- It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
- It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Certification for eri silk was reported, it made Eri Silk Oeko-Tex a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The OEKO-TEX certification ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of Eri Silk and allowing Indian exporters to confidently compete in high-end international markets that prioritize sustainable, chemical-free, and ethically produced textiles.
Statement 2 is Correct
The certification confirms that a textile meets strict international safety, environmental, and human health standards. This is highly valued by buyers in premium, eco-conscious global markets, particularly in Europe and North America. Combined with its Geographical Indication (GI) status and reputation as a cruelty-free "peace silk," the certification cements Eri Silk's position as a premium eco-friendly fabric, enabling its entry into these premium markets.
Therefore, both statements are correct, making the correct option C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, both statements are correct, making the correct option C.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
| List I (INTERPOL Notice) | List II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. Silver Notice | 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies |
| B. Blue Notice | 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation |
| C. Black Notice | 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety |
| D. Green Notice | 4. To identify and trace criminal assets |
A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3
A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When INTERPOL Notices Match was reported, it made INTERPOL Notices Match a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
The INTERPOL uses a colour-coded system of notices to enable countries to share alerts and requests for information worldwide. The correct matching of the notices with their descriptions is as follows:
Silver Notice: It is a recently introduced intelligence tool designed specifically to identify, monitor, and trace illicit criminal assets across international borders. (A matches 4)
Blue Notice: It is issued to collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to an ongoing criminal investigation. Unlike a Red Notice, it does not request the provisional arrest of the individual. (B matches 2)
Black Notice: It is used to seek information on unidentified bodies. It functions primarily as a humanitarian and forensic tool to help establish the identity of deceased persons found across international borders. (C matches 1)
Green Notice: It is issued to provide warnings and share intelligence about individuals who have committed criminal offences and are considered a possible threat to public safety in other countries. (D matches 3)
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to Option C.
Matching-list questions reward precision on pairs — watch for swapped superlatives or transposed regions.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to Option C.
Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ?
- Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
- Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
- Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 12 Jan 2026, NIRANTAR Platform put NIRANTAR Platform in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience (NIRANTAR) is a collaborative platform under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Ecosystem Survey & Analysis is one of its four thematic verticals, and its lead institute is the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The Research and Management of Ecosystem Service vertical is led by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, not the Central Zoo Authority (CZA). The CZA is merely a participating institute under this vertical.
Statement 3 is Correct
The Capacity Development Support vertical focuses on research, education, and capacity building. The lead institute for this vertical is the Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit ?
- Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
- Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
- Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
- Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow
Select the answer using the code given below :
2 and 3
1 and 4
3 and 4
1 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 12 Jan 2026, India – Germany Joint Statement put Germany Chancellor Visit in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
During the visit, an MoU was signed to strengthen cooperation in traditional medicine between Gujarat Ayurveda University and German institutions. (An earlier MoU in late 2025 was agreed upon between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and Charité Universitätsmedizin in Berlin, not the University of Hamburg).
Statement 2 is Correct
A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on Youth Hockey Development was officially signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation.
Statement 3 is Correct
The two nations announced the establishment of a new bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific, alongside a Track 1.5 Foreign Policy and Security Dialogue.
Statement 4 is Incorrect
Following the Chancellor's focus on Gujarat, Germany announced the appointment of an Honorary Consul in Ahmedabad to foster closer cooperation in the western region, rather than in Lucknow.
Since the question asks for the statements that are not correct, statements 1 and 4 fit the criteria. Therefore, the correct option is B.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ?
- It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
- It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 15 Dec 2025, भारत सरकार put DHRUV64 Microprocessor in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
DHRUV64 is the third chip to be fabricated under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme. The first chip was THEJAS32 and the second was THEJAS64. The DIR-V programme aims to create a complete portfolio of future-ready, indigenous RISC-V-based microprocessors to reduce India's dependence on imported chips and foreign intellectual property.
Statement 2 is Correct
Developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), DHRUV64 is officially recognized as India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. It is built on the open-source RISC-V instruction set architecture, which eliminates proprietary licensing fees and ensures technological sovereignty.
Therefore, both statements are correct.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, both statements are correct.
The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ?
- The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
- It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
- It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 25 Mar 2026, NATIONAL STANDARD FOR BOMB DISPOSAL SYSTEM put BIS Bomb Disposal in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
In December 2025, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) notified India's first dedicated national standard for bomb disposal systems, officially designated as IS 19445:2025.
Statement 2 is Correct
The standard establishes comprehensive guidelines for evaluating bomb disposal equipment (such as bomb blankets, baskets, and inhibitors) against blast loads and splinter effects. A primary objective is to bring uniformity to testing and procurement, thereby improving the safety, reliability, and interoperability of equipment across various deploying agencies (e.g., Armed Forces, CAPFs, NSG, and State Police).
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The standard was developed indigenously by BIS at the request of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the DRDO’s Terminal Ballistic Research Laboratory (TBRL). There is no record of collaboration with Russian entities (such as the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute). In fact, the standard was specifically created to reduce reliance on foreign norms, as existing international standards were either restricted in access or misaligned with the specific threat profiles and operational realities faced by Indian forces.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?
- The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
- The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
- The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3
1 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 2 Dec 2025, India's Commitment to Disability Rights put Persons with Disabilities in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and places a legal obligation on governments to ensure non-discrimination and accessibility. It also mandates reservations for PwDs, such as increasing the quota to 4% in government employment and 5% in higher education.
Statement 2 is Correct
The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD). It focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure (barrier-free public buildings), transport systems (accessible railways, airports, and roads), and information and communication technology (accessible government websites and digital ecosystems).
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking registered as a not-for-profit company to provide concessional financial assistance to promote entrepreneurship, self-employment, and higher education among PwDs. However, it was set up under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?
- The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
- They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
- There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3
News
French Open 2026: Players accuse Grand Slams of ignoring concerns as tensions rise in Paris
23 May 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 23 May 2026, French Open 2026: Players accuse Grand Slams of ignoring concerns as tensions rise in Paris put Grand Slam Governance in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The four Grand Slam tournaments (Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon, and US Open) collaborate through a shared governance structure called the Grand Slam Board (GSB). The GSB is responsible for coordinating activities of mutual interest, including maintaining the unified Grand Slam Rule Book, officiating, and managing relationships with governing bodies like the ATP, WTA, and ITF.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
According to the Grand Slam Rule Book's "Open Competition" section, entry is not open to all internationally ranked players. A player must have a ranking of 500 or better. While it is true that minors under the age of 14 are not eligible for entry, the ranking restriction means that simply being internationally ranked and above 14 is not sufficient for entry.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
While each tournament draw has a fixed maximum number of wild card slots (e.g., 8 wild cards in a standard 128-player singles main draw), there is no restriction on how many wild cards a specific individual can be granted over time. The official rulebook explicitly features a "No Limitation" clause, stating that there shall be no limitation as to the number of Wild Cards a player may receive to compete in the Grand Slam Tournaments.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?
| Semiconductor Plant | Location |
|---|---|
| (a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics | Gujarat |
| (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. | Assam |
| (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. | Madhya Pradesh |
| (d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. | Odisha |
CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Semiconductor Plants was reported, it made Semiconductor Plants a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Option A is correctly matched
The Union Cabinet approved the Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility by CG Power and Industrial Solutions (in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics) to be set up in Sanand, Gujarat.
Option B is correctly matched
Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. (TSAT) is establishing a greenfield semiconductor assembly and test facility in Jagiroad, Assam. It marks a major industrial investment in Northeast India.
Option C is incorrectly matched
The OSAT facility by the HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture (India Chip Pvt. Ltd.) is being established in Jewar, Uttar Pradesh (in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority region), not Madhya Pradesh. It will manufacture display driver chips.
Option D is correctly matched
SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is setting up a Silicon Carbide (SiC) semiconductor manufacturing plant in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. It is designed to be India's first commercial compound semiconductor fab.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?
- Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
- It was developed by IIT Delhi.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
News
PARLIAMENT QUESTION: FORECAST SYSTEM: Bharat Forecast System: Accuracy of weather predictions
29 Jan 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 29 Jan 2026, PARLIAMENT QUESTION: FORECAST SYSTEM: Bharat Forecast System: Accuracy of weather predictions put Bharat Forecast System in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
A primary objective of the Bharat Forecast System (BFS) is to generate hyper-local, highly accurate weather forecasts down to the Panchayat cluster level (village and block level) to aid rural communities, agriculture, and disaster management. It operates on an ultra-fine 6 km x 6 km grid (upgraded from India's previous 12 km resolution models), making it the highest-resolution operational global weather model currently used by any national meteorological agency in the world.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The Bharat Forecast System was indigenously developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, which is an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It was not developed by IIT Delhi. The model is powered by advanced High-Performance Computing (HPC) systems, specifically the new 'Arka' supercomputer at IITM Pune and 'Arunika' at NCMRWF Noida.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:
- It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
- This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.
- One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When MINISTRY OF DEFENCE; YEAR END REVIEW - 2025 was reported, it made Mission Sudarshan Chakra a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Mission Sudarshan Chakra is designed as a multi-domain security umbrella. It explicitly aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capabilities, acting as both a defensive shield and an offensive sword.
Statement 2 is Correct
The mission integrates advanced technologies like AI, space-based sensors, and directed energy weapons to ensure rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses. This indigenous development (incorporating projects like Project Kusha) is specifically aimed at reinforcing India's strategic autonomy and self-reliance in the defence sector.
Statement 3 is Correct
A major distinguishing feature of this initiative is its expanded scope. Announced as a 10-year national security initiative, a stated goal of the mission is to bring all public places (including hospitals, railways, and religious/cultural sites) under an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035, moving beyond the conventional protection of just military and strategic installations.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:
- 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
- Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
- Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 only
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Maitri Setu was reported, it made Maitri Setu a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
'Maitri Setu' (Friendship Bridge) is built over the Feni River, which forms a natural boundary between India and Bangladesh. However, it connects Sabroom in Tripura, India, with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, not the other way around.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India and Nepal, not Myanmar. It spans the Mahakali River (known as the Sharda River in India) and links the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand, India, with the Baitadi district in Nepal.
Statement 3 is Correct
The Mechi Bridge connects India and Nepal over the Mechi River. It specifically links the Panitanki Bypass in West Bengal, India, with Kakarvitta in Nepal. It serves as a crucial link for cross-border trade and is the endpoint of Asian Highway 02 (AH02) in India.
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
- A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
- The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 only
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When NEW CRIMINAL LAWS was reported, it made Zero FIR / BNSS a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
A Zero FIR can indeed be lodged at any police station, regardless of the territorial jurisdiction, for cognizable offences. This is in line with Section 173(1) of the BNSS, 2023, which allows for the registration of a Zero FIR for cognizable offences irrespective of jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
While Section 173(3) of the BNSS allows for a preliminary enquiry, it is not specifically tied to the lodging of a Zero FIR. The preliminary enquiry is applicable to cognizable offences punishable by 3 to 7 years of imprisonment and requires prior permission from a competent authority. However, the statement does not accurately reflect the conditions under which a preliminary enquiry can be initiated in relation to a Zero FIR.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
It is not obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically for a Zero FIR. Section 173(1) allows for information to be given either orally or by electronic communication, and electronic submission is not mandatory.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
Access, Usage, and Quality
Access, Affordability, and Transparency
News
Government of India: RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index rises to 67 in 2025 indicating Growth for Everyone
6 Aug 2025
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 6 Aug 2025, Government of India: RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index rises to 67 in 2025 indicating Growth for Everyone put RBI FI-Index Sub-indices in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the composite Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) in August 2021 to comprehensively measure the extent of financial inclusion across the country. The index incorporates data from the banking, investments, insurance, postal, and pension sectors.
The FI-Index is constructed using three broad parameters (sub-indices) with distinct weightages:
- Access (35% weightage): Measures the supply-side availability of financial services, including physical and digital infrastructure like bank branches, ATMs, and PoS terminals.
- Usage (45% weightage): Reflects the demand side and actual utilization of financial services, such as savings, investments, digital transactions (e.g., UPI), insurance, and credit.
- Quality (20% weightage): Captures the qualitative aspects of financial inclusion, including financial literacy, consumer protection, and inequalities or deficiencies in services.
Option A is Incorrect
While credit, insurance, and pension are sectors covered under the index, they are not the broad sub-indices used to structure the FI-Index.
Option B is Incorrect
GDP contribution is not a parameter for measuring financial inclusion. Financial literacy is a component under the Quality sub-index, not a standalone sub-index.
Option C is Correct
Access, Usage, and Quality are the exact three sub-indices of the FI-Index.
Option D is Incorrect
Affordability and Transparency are not the designated sub-indices, though they may conceptually relate to the Quality parameter.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?
To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
To replace private e-commerce players
To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions
News
Revolutionizing Digital Commerce: The ONDC Initiative: Digital commerce reimagined for inclusivity and innovation
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Revolutionizing Digital Commerce: The ONDC Initiative: Digital commerce reimagined for inclusivity and innovation was reported, it made ONDC Objective Q54 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Option A is Incorrect
ONDC does not mandate government control over transactions; rather, it promotes a decentralized, open market framework.
Option B is Incorrect
It does not seek to replace private e-commerce players. Instead, private applications and platforms integrate into the ONDC network to facilitate transactions.
Option C is Correct
The primary goal of the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is to democratize digital commerce by shifting the industry from a closed, platform-centric model (dominated by a few large e-commerce giants) to an open, interoperable network. By enabling interoperability, ONDC breaks the monopolies of large private e-commerce players and creates a level playing field for small businesses, local retailers, and MSMEs to reach consumers directly.
Option D is Incorrect
ONDC does not mandate UPI for all online transactions. While it is frequently called the "UPI of e-commerce" because it applies the same open-network philosophy to online shopping, it does not enforce UPI as the sole payment method.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :
- The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.
- The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
- The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When AI Impact Summit 2026 was reported, it made AI Impact Summit 2026 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Summit's intellectual framework and core philosophy were anchored in three foundational principles (Sutras): People, Planet, and Progress, not People, Planning, and Progress.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The New Delhi Declaration introduced the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI to promote affordable access to foundational AI resources, support local innovation, and build resilient AI ecosystems. However, it was established as a voluntary and non-binding framework, respecting national laws, rather than a binding treaty.
Statement 3 is Correct
The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven thematic pillars of action, officially referred to as Chakras. These foundational areas included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI, alongside Democratizing AI Resources, Economic Growth & Social Good, Human Capital Development, and Resilient, Efficient & Innovative AI Systems.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ?
- Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
- IMT Trilateral Highway
- Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Alignment of Logistics Policies in the North-Eastern region was reported, it made India-ASEAN Connectivity a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with the Sittwe seaport in Myanmar by sea, and then links Sittwe to Mizoram in India via river and road. Since Myanmar is an ASEAN member, this project is a key component of India's connectivity with the ASEAN region under its Act East Policy.
Statement 2 is Correct
The India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in India with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar. Both Myanmar and Thailand are ASEAN members, making this highway a flagship project for India-ASEAN physical connectivity.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line is an international railway project connecting Agartala in Tripura, India, with Akhaura in Bangladesh. Since Bangladesh is not a member of ASEAN (it is a member of SAARC and BIMSTEC), this project falls under India-Bangladesh bilateral cooperation, not India-ASEAN cooperation.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, the correct option is A.
A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :
Green Bond
Social Bond
Sustainability Bond
Sovereign Bond
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Sustainability Bond was reported, it made Sustainability Bond a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
Sustainability Bonds are fixed-income instruments where the proceeds are exclusively applied to finance or re-finance a combination of both environmental (green) and social projects.
Green Bonds are specifically earmarked to raise money exclusively for climate and environmental projects (e.g., renewable energy, pollution prevention, biodiversity conservation).
Social Bonds raise funds exclusively for projects that address or mitigate a specific social issue and seek to achieve positive social outcomes (e.g., affordable basic infrastructure, access to essential services, affordable housing).
Sovereign Bonds refer to debt securities issued by a national government to finance general government spending and manage national debt. The term refers to the issuer rather than the specific use of proceeds, meaning a standard sovereign bond is not inherently restricted to environmental or social projects.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ?
- Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
- T-90 MK-III Tanks
- Akula Class Submarine
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 2
1 and 3
1 only
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 21 Apr 2026, Defence Hardware Manufacturing put Defence Hardware Manufacturing in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets are manufactured in India. They are produced by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) at its Nashik facility under a licensing and technology-transfer agreement with Russia's Sukhoi. Recent contracts for the jets feature over 60% indigenous content.
Statement 2 is Correct
The T-90 MK-III Tanks (Bhishma) are manufactured in India. These main battle tanks are produced by the state-owned Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL) at the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF) in Avadi, Tamil Nadu, under a Russian license. The Indian Army recently began receiving the latest Mk-III variants from HVF.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The Akula Class Submarine is not manufactured in India. The Akula-class is a series of nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs) designed and built entirely in Russia. India does not manufacture them; rather, the Indian Navy has historically leased them from Russia (e.g., INS Chakra, leased in 2012 and returned in 2021) to train its crew and bolster its underwater capabilities.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :
- The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
- The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
- The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When India assumes Chair of Colombo Process for 2024 | Akashvani News was reported, it made Colombo Process a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process comprising 12 Asian member states that are primarily countries of origin for migrant workers. It operates as a voluntary forum where decisions are made by consensus, but they are strictly non-binding in nature, not binding.
Statement 2 is Correct
The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (ADD) is a voluntary and non-binding inter-governmental consultative process established in 2008. It brings together Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on temporary contractual labour mobility, aiming to ensure safe and orderly labour migration.
Statement 3 is Correct
The Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) was established following a proposal by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan at the 2006 UN General Assembly High-Level Dialogue on International Migration and Development. It is a state-led, voluntary, informal, and non-binding process operating outside the formal UN system to discuss the linkages between migration and development.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Consider the following UN organisations/agencies :
- World Food Programme
- United Nations Children's Fund
- United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
- International Labour Organisation
How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice ?
1
2
3
4
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 12 Jan 2026, Ex-refugee takes over as UNHCR chief put UNHCR in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Explanation
World Food Programme (WFP) was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger and prevent its use as a weapon of war and conflict.
United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once in 1965 for its humanitarian work and efforts to enhance solidarity between nations.
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice (1954 and 1981). The 1954 prize recognized its post-WWII refugee relief efforts, and the 1981 prize honored its ongoing work promoting the fundamental rights of refugees globally.
International Labour Organisation (ILO) was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once in 1969 for its role in improving working conditions, promoting social justice, and contributing to global peace.
Since only one organisation (UNHCR) out of the four listed has been awarded the Nobel Prize twice, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Option A follows once each statement or pair is checked against standard syllabus facts.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
| List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) | List II (Period of Operation) |
|---|---|
| A. UNMIL | 1. 2007 - 2010 |
| B. MINURCAT | 2. 2002 - 2005 |
| C. MINUSTAH | 3. 2003 - 2018 |
| D. UNMISET | 4. 2004 - 2017 |
A: 3, B: 4, C: 1, D: 2
A: 3, B: 1, C: 4 , D: 2
A: 2, B: 1, C: 4, D: 3
A: 2, B: 4, C: 1, D: 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When India’s Legacy in UN Peacekeeping: Leadership, Commitment, and Sacrifice was reported, it made UN Peacekeeping a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
The correct matching of the United Nations Peacekeeping Operations with their respective periods of operation is as follows:
- UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia): Established in September 2003 following the end of the Second Liberian Civil War, this mission aimed to support the implementation of the ceasefire agreement and the peace process. It officially closed on March 30, 2018. Thus, A matches 3.
- MINURCAT (United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad): Established in September 2007 to protect civilians, promote human rights, and support regional peace in the face of spillover violence from the Darfur conflict. Its mandate officially ended on December 31, 2010. Thus, B matches 1.
- MINUSTAH (United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti): Established in April 2004 after the 2004 Haitian coup d'état to restore a secure and stable environment. The mission officially ended on October 15, 2017, transitioning to a smaller justice support mission (MINUJUSTH). Thus, C matches 4.
- UNMISET (United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor): Established on May 20, 2002, to provide assistance to the newly independent nation of East Timor (Timor-Leste) in developing core administrative structures and maintaining security. It successfully completed its mandate on May 20, 2005. Thus, D matches 2.
Therefore, the correct matching is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.
Matching-list questions reward precision on pairs — watch for swapped superlatives or transposed regions.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct matching is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
| List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) | List II (Location) |
|---|---|
| A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. NOIDA |
| B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. Bengaluru |
| C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. Colombo |
| D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. Thimphu |
A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3
A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When List of Initiatives : Prime Minister’s participation in the 6th BIMSTEC SUMMIT was reported, it made BIMSTEC Centres a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) has established several specialized centres to foster regional cooperation. The correct matching of these centres with their locations is as follows:
- BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory (BCIO): Located in Thimphu, Bhutan. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for its establishment was signed during the Third BIMSTEC Summit in 2014 to promote cultural cooperation and preserve heritage.
- BIMSTEC Energy Centre (BEC): Located in Bengaluru, India. Housed at the Central Power Research Institute, it coordinates regional energy cooperation, capacity building, and acts as the Secretariat for the BIMSTEC Grid Interconnection Coordination Committee.
- BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate (BCWC): Located in NOIDA, Uttar Pradesh, India. It is hosted at the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF) to enhance regional cooperation in weather prediction, climate modeling, and disaster preparedness.
- BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility (TTF): Located in Colombo, Sri Lanka. The Memorandum of Association (MoA) for its establishment was signed during the Fifth BIMSTEC Summit in 2022 to facilitate technology sharing, innovation, and capacity building among member states.
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to the correct option.
Matching-list questions reward precision on pairs — watch for swapped superlatives or transposed regions.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to the correct option.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
- The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
- The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
- The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3
2 and 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 11 Mar 2026, Objectives And Key Features of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) put Revamped RGSA in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021.
Statement 2 is Correct
The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) :
- MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
- MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
- Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Multidimensional Poverty Index was reported, it made Multidimensional Poverty Index a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Both the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) and India's National MPI are calculated using the Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology. This method measures acute poverty by counting the overlapping deprivations that individuals experience simultaneously.
Statement 2 is Correct
India's National MPI, calculated by NITI Aayog, consists of 12 indicators. It retains the 10 standard indicators from the Global MPI and adds two new ones to better reflect India's specific development priorities.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The two additional indicators in the National MPI are Maternal Health (added to the Health dimension) and Bank Account (added to the Standard of Living dimension). Therefore, these two are exclusive to NITI Aayog's National MPI and are not present in the UNDP's Global MPI, which only has 10 indicators.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
| List I (INTERPOL Notice) | List II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. Silver Notice | 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies |
| B. Blue Notice | 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation |
| C. Black Notice | 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety |
| D. Green Notice | 4. To identify and trace criminal assets |
A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3
A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When INTERPOL Notices was reported, it made INTERPOL Notices a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
The INTERPOL uses a colour-coded system of notices to enable countries to share alerts and requests for information worldwide. The correct matching of the notices with their descriptions is as follows:
Silver Notice: It is a recently introduced intelligence tool designed specifically to identify, monitor, and trace illicit criminal assets across international borders. (A matches 4)
Blue Notice: It is issued to collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to an ongoing criminal investigation. Unlike a Red Notice, it does not request the provisional arrest of the individual. (B matches 2)
Black Notice: It is used to seek information on unidentified bodies. It functions primarily as a humanitarian and forensic tool to help establish the identity of deceased persons found across international borders. (C matches 1)
Green Notice: It is issued to provide warnings and share intelligence about individuals who have committed criminal offences and are considered a possible threat to public safety in other countries. (D matches 3)
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to Option C.
Matching-list questions reward precision on pairs — watch for swapped superlatives or transposed regions.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to Option C.
Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ?
- Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
- Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
- Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 12 Jan 2026, NINATAR NIRANTAR put NINATAR NIRANTAR in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience (NIRANTAR) is a collaborative platform under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Ecosystem Survey & Analysis is one of its four thematic verticals, and its lead institute is the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The Research and Management of Ecosystem Service vertical is led by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, not the Central Zoo Authority (CZA). The CZA is merely a participating institute under this vertical.
Statement 3 is Correct
The Capacity Development Support vertical focuses on research, education, and capacity building. The lead institute for this vertical is the Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit ?
- Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
- Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
- Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
- Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow
Select the answer using the code given below :
2 and 3
1 and 4
3 and 4
1 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 12 Jan 2026, India – Germany Joint Statement put Germany Chancellor Visit in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
During the visit, an MoU was signed to strengthen cooperation in traditional medicine between Gujarat Ayurveda University and German institutions. (An earlier MoU in late 2025 was agreed upon between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and Charité Universitätsmedizin in Berlin, not the University of Hamburg).
Statement 2 is Correct
A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on Youth Hockey Development was officially signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation.
Statement 3 is Correct
The two nations announced the establishment of a new bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific, alongside a Track 1.5 Foreign Policy and Security Dialogue.
Statement 4 is Incorrect
Following the Chancellor's focus on Gujarat, Germany announced the appointment of an Honorary Consul in Ahmedabad to foster closer cooperation in the western region, rather than in Lucknow.
Since the question asks for the statements that are not correct, statements 1 and 4 fit the criteria. Therefore, the correct option is B.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ?
- It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
- It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 15 Dec 2025, भारत सरकार put DHRUVA Microprocessor in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
DHRUV64 is the third chip to be fabricated under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme. The first chip was THEJAS32 and the second was THEJAS64. The DIR-V programme aims to create a complete portfolio of future-ready, indigenous RISC-V-based microprocessors to reduce India's dependence on imported chips and foreign intellectual property.
Statement 2 is Correct
Developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), DHRUV64 is officially recognized as India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. It is built on the open-source RISC-V instruction set architecture, which eliminates proprietary licensing fees and ensures technological sovereignty.
Therefore, both statements are correct.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, both statements are correct.
The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ?
- The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
- It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
- It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 25 Mar 2026, NATIONAL STANDARD FOR BOMB DISPOSAL SYSTEM put BIS Bomb Disposal in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
In December 2025, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) notified India's first dedicated national standard for bomb disposal systems, officially designated as IS 19445:2025.
Statement 2 is Correct
The standard establishes comprehensive guidelines for evaluating bomb disposal equipment (such as bomb blankets, baskets, and inhibitors) against blast loads and splinter effects. A primary objective is to bring uniformity to testing and procurement, thereby improving the safety, reliability, and interoperability of equipment across various deploying agencies (e.g., Armed Forces, CAPFs, NSG, and State Police).
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The standard was developed indigenously by BIS at the request of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the DRDO’s Terminal Ballistic Research Laboratory (TBRL). There is no record of collaboration with Russian entities (such as the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute). In fact, the standard was specifically created to reduce reliance on foreign norms, as existing international standards were either restricted in access or misaligned with the specific threat profiles and operational realities faced by Indian forces.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X' :
Michel H. Devoret
Richard Robson
John Clarke
Joel Mokyr
News
Nobel Prize in Physics 2025 out: What have the 3 scientists done, and how does it help the world
7 Oct 2025
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 7 Oct 2025, Nobel Prize in Physics 2025 out: What have the 3 scientists done, and how does it help the world put Nobel Prize 2025 in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Explanation
John Clarke is the correct answer. He was born in Cambridge, United Kingdom, and was jointly awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunneling in an electric circuit. At the time of the announcement, he was a Professor Emeritus at the University of California, Berkeley, which is an American university.
Michel H. Devoret is incorrect. Although he shared the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics and was affiliated with American universities (Yale University and UC Santa Barbara), he was born in France, not the UK.
Richard Robson is incorrect. While he was born in Yorkshire, England (UK) and won the 2025 Nobel Prize in Chemistry, his academic affiliation at the time of the award was the University of Melbourne, which is an Australian university, not an American one.
Joel Mokyr is incorrect. He won the 2025 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences and was a professor at Northwestern University (an American university), but he was born in Leiden, Netherlands, not the UK.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ?
- They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
- Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
- GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Drone Swarms Defence was reported, it made Drone Swarms Defence a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Drones typically communicate with ground command centres using standard Radio Frequency (RF) bands (e.g., UHF, S-band, L-band) or Satellite Communications (SATCOM) to ensure reliable, long-range connectivity. The Terahertz (THz) band is an emerging, highly experimental frequency envisioned for future 6G networks. Because THz waves suffer from severe atmospheric attenuation and have a very short range, they are currently being researched for high-speed inter-drone (drone-to-drone) communication at close proximity, not for long-range links to a command centre.
Statement 2 is Correct
The defining characteristic of a drone swarm is decentralized collective intelligence. Individual drones actively communicate with one another (often via ad-hoc mesh networks) to coordinate formations, share sensor data, avoid collisions, and adapt to real-time environmental changes without relying on a central controller.
Statement 3 is Correct
Electronic Warfare (EW) is a primary defense against drone swarms. GPS Spoofing is a standard and commonly used countermeasure. It involves broadcasting fake satellite signals to deceive the drones' navigation systems, forcing them off course, causing mid-air collisions, or triggering forced landings.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?
| Semiconductor Plant | Location |
|---|---|
| (a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics | Gujarat |
| (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. | Assam |
| (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. | Madhya Pradesh |
| (d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. | Odisha |
CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Semiconductor Plants was reported, it made Semiconductor Plants a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Option A is correctly matched
The Union Cabinet approved the Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility by CG Power and Industrial Solutions (in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics) to be set up in Sanand, Gujarat.
Option B is correctly matched
Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. (TSAT) is establishing a greenfield semiconductor assembly and test facility in Jagiroad, Assam. It marks a major industrial investment in Northeast India.
Option C is incorrectly matched
The OSAT facility by the HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture (India Chip Pvt. Ltd.) is being established in Jewar, Uttar Pradesh (in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority region), not Madhya Pradesh. It will manufacture display driver chips.
Option D is correctly matched
SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is setting up a Silicon Carbide (SiC) semiconductor manufacturing plant in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. It is designed to be India's first commercial compound semiconductor fab.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?
- Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
- It was developed by IIT Delhi.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
News
PARLIAMENT QUESTION: FORECAST SYSTEM: Bharat Forecast System: Accuracy of weather predictions
29 Jan 2026
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 29 Jan 2026, PARLIAMENT QUESTION: FORECAST SYSTEM: Bharat Forecast System: Accuracy of weather predictions put Bharat Forecast System in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
A primary objective of the Bharat Forecast System (BFS) is to generate hyper-local, highly accurate weather forecasts down to the Panchayat cluster level (village and block level) to aid rural communities, agriculture, and disaster management. It operates on an ultra-fine 6 km x 6 km grid (upgraded from India's previous 12 km resolution models), making it the highest-resolution operational global weather model currently used by any national meteorological agency in the world.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The Bharat Forecast System was indigenously developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, which is an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It was not developed by IIT Delhi. The model is powered by advanced High-Performance Computing (HPC) systems, specifically the new 'Arka' supercomputer at IITM Pune and 'Arunika' at NCMRWF Noida.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong':
- The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category.
- The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
- This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 25 Feb 2026, Boong BAFTA put Boong BAFTA in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Manipuri-language coming-of-age drama film Boong recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Best Children's and Family Film category, competing against major international studio productions like Zootopia 2 and Lilo & Stitch.
Statement 2 is Correct
The film is written and directed by debutant filmmaker Lakshmipriya Devi and co-produced by Farhan Akhtar and Ritesh Sidhwani’s Excel Entertainment.
Statement 3 is Correct
Boong made history by becoming the first Indian film to ever win a BAFTA award in the Best Children's and Family Film category.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?
- Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
- Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
- Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
- Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 and 3
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4
1 and 4 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Blockchain was reported, it made Blockchain a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Blockchain's architecture allows data to be shared transparently with relevant stakeholders. Because the ledger is append-only and secured by network consensus, users can view records without the risk of unauthorized alteration.
Statement 2 is Correct
Blockchain operates as a decentralized database (Distributed Ledger Technology). Identical copies of the entire ledger are stored across multiple computers (nodes) on a network. These nodes continuously communicate and sync rapidly (often within seconds, depending on the specific blockchain protocol) to maintain a single source of truth.
Statement 3 is Correct
A consortium blockchain is a hybrid model that blends features of both public (open) and private (closed) blockchains. It is governed by a pre-approved group of organizations rather than a single entity or the open public, allowing for semi-decentralized control and selective data access.
Statement 4 is Correct
Blockchain uses complex mathematical algorithms (cryptographic hashing) to link blocks. Once data is recorded and validated by the network, changing or deleting it requires altering all subsequent blocks and gaining majority network control, making tampering practically impossible.
Note: While all four statements are factually correct based on the principles of blockchain technology, there is no option provided that includes all of them (1, 2, 3, and 4). Option C is the most comprehensive and appropriate choice as it correctly identifies statements 1, 2, and 4 as a valid set.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?
To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
To replace private e-commerce players
To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions
News
Revolutionizing Digital Commerce: The ONDC Initiative: Digital commerce reimagined for inclusivity and innovation
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Revolutionizing Digital Commerce: The ONDC Initiative: Digital commerce reimagined for inclusivity and innovation was reported, it made ONDC a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Option A is Incorrect
ONDC does not mandate government control over transactions; rather, it promotes a decentralized, open market framework.
Option B is Incorrect
It does not seek to replace private e-commerce players. Instead, private applications and platforms integrate into the ONDC network to facilitate transactions.
Option C is Correct
The primary goal of the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is to democratize digital commerce by shifting the industry from a closed, platform-centric model (dominated by a few large e-commerce giants) to an open, interoperable network. By enabling interoperability, ONDC breaks the monopolies of large private e-commerce players and creates a level playing field for small businesses, local retailers, and MSMEs to reach consumers directly.
Option D is Incorrect
ONDC does not mandate UPI for all online transactions. While it is frequently called the "UPI of e-commerce" because it applies the same open-network philosophy to online shopping, it does not enforce UPI as the sole payment method.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?
- The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
- The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
- The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3
1 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 2 Dec 2025, India's Commitment to Disability Rights put Persons with Disabilities Q81 in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and places a legal obligation on governments to ensure non-discrimination and accessibility. It also mandates reservations for PwDs, such as increasing the quota to 4% in government employment and 5% in higher education.
Statement 2 is Correct
The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD). It focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure (barrier-free public buildings), transport systems (accessible railways, airports, and roads), and information and communication technology (accessible government websites and digital ecosystems).
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking registered as a not-for-profit company to provide concessional financial assistance to promote entrepreneurship, self-employment, and higher education among PwDs. However, it was set up under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ?
- Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
- China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
- The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
- Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 3 only
3 only
1, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 4
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When National Critical Mineral Mission was reported, it made National Critical Mineral Mission a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are indispensable for modern technological innovations. Their unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties make them critical for artificial intelligence hardware, robotics, space exploration, electric vehicles, and advanced defense systems.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
While China dominates global REE mining, accounting for roughly 69% of global production, the second-largest producer is the United States, followed by Myanmar and Australia. India ranks much lower globally and is not the second-largest producer.
Statement 3 is Correct
The Government of India officially launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in January 2025. The mission is a strategic blueprint designed to secure domestic and global supply chains, reduce import dependence, and establish a robust framework for self-reliance in critical minerals essential for clean energy and technology.
Statement 4 is Incorrect
Rare Earth Elements are a set of 17 metallic elements, not 13. This group comprises the 15 lanthanides on the periodic table, along with scandium and yttrium, which share similar chemical properties and are typically found in the same ore deposits.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:
- 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
- Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
- Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 only
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When River Bridges Maitri Setu Q86 was reported, it made River Bridges Maitri Setu Q86 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
'Maitri Setu' (Friendship Bridge) is built over the Feni River, which forms a natural boundary between India and Bangladesh. However, it connects Sabroom in Tripura, India, with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, not the other way around.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India and Nepal, not Myanmar. It spans the Mahakali River (known as the Sharda River in India) and links the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand, India, with the Baitadi district in Nepal.
Statement 3 is Correct
The Mechi Bridge connects India and Nepal over the Mechi River. It specifically links the Panitanki Bypass in West Bengal, India, with Kakarvitta in Nepal. It serves as a crucial link for cross-border trade and is the endpoint of Asian Highway 02 (AH02) in India.
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
- A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
- The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 only
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When NEW CRIMINAL LAWS was reported, it made Zero FIR BNSS Q87 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
A Zero FIR can indeed be lodged at any police station, regardless of the territorial jurisdiction, for cognizable offences. This is in line with Section 173(1) of the BNSS, 2023, which allows for the registration of a Zero FIR for cognizable offences irrespective of jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
While Section 173(3) of the BNSS allows for a preliminary enquiry, it is not specifically tied to the lodging of a Zero FIR. The preliminary enquiry is applicable to cognizable offences punishable by 3 to 7 years of imprisonment and requires prior permission from a competent authority. However, the statement does not accurately reflect the conditions under which a preliminary enquiry can be initiated in relation to a Zero FIR.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
It is not obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically for a Zero FIR. Section 173(1) allows for information to be given either orally or by electronic communication, and electronic submission is not mandatory.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |
| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
1
2
3
None
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Govt Organisations Match was reported, it made Govt Organisations Match a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Row 1 is Incorrect
The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) acts as the nodal agency for gathering and coordinating economic intelligence among various law enforcement agencies to combat economic offenses. However, it functions under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Row 2 is Incorrect
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a multi-disciplinary statutory organization tasked with detecting, investigating, and prosecuting serious and complex corporate frauds (white-collar crimes). It functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.
Row 3 is Correct
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is India's premier investigative agency handling corruption, economic offenses, and special crimes. Its overarching mandate is to preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy. It functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (specifically, the Department of Personnel and Training).
Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.
Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?
- Employment Policy Convention
- Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
- International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
- Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
- Convention on Reduction of Statelessness
Select the answer using the code given below:
2 and 4
1 and 2
3 and 4 only
3, 4 and 5
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When ILO Conventions Ratification was reported, it made ILO Conventions Ratification a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Employment Policy Convention, 1964 (ILO No. 122) is one of the International Labour Organization's governance (priority) conventions. India ratified it on November 17, 1998.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957 (ILO No. 105) is a fundamental ILO convention. India ratified it on May 18, 2000.
Statement 3 is Correct
The International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families (1990) is a UN multilateral treaty. India has neither signed nor ratified this convention.
Statement 4 is Incorrect
The Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War (1949) (also known as the Fourth Geneva Convention) was ratified by India on November 9, 1950, and implemented domestically via the Geneva Conventions Act, 1960. (Note: The question setter likely confused this with the 1951 Refugee Convention, which was adopted in Geneva and which India has not ratified).
Statement 5 is Correct
The Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961) has not been signed or ratified by India. India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention, the 1954 Convention on Statelessness, or this 1961 Convention.
Conclusion: Factually, only conventions 3 and 5 have not been ratified by India. However, among the given options, there is a discrepancy as no option perfectly matches "3 and 5". Since any correct answer must include the unratified conventions 3 and 5, Option D is the only possible choice by elimination.
Correct Answer: D
Option D follows once each statement or pair is checked against standard syllabus facts.
Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :
- The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.
- The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
- The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When AI Impact Summit Q90 was reported, it made AI Impact Summit Q90 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Summit's intellectual framework and core philosophy were anchored in three foundational principles (Sutras): People, Planet, and Progress, not People, Planning, and Progress.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
The New Delhi Declaration introduced the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI to promote affordable access to foundational AI resources, support local innovation, and build resilient AI ecosystems. However, it was established as a voluntary and non-binding framework, respecting national laws, rather than a binding treaty.
Statement 3 is Correct
The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven thematic pillars of action, officially referred to as Chakras. These foundational areas included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI, alongside Democratizing AI Resources, Economic Growth & Social Good, Human Capital Development, and Resilient, Efficient & Innovative AI Systems.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: D
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ?
- Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
- IMT Trilateral Highway
- Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Alignment of Logistics Policies in the North-Eastern region was reported, it made India-ASEAN Connectivity Q91 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with the Sittwe seaport in Myanmar by sea, and then links Sittwe to Mizoram in India via river and road. Since Myanmar is an ASEAN member, this project is a key component of India's connectivity with the ASEAN region under its Act East Policy.
Statement 2 is Correct
The India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in India with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar. Both Myanmar and Thailand are ASEAN members, making this highway a flagship project for India-ASEAN physical connectivity.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line is an international railway project connecting Agartala in Tripura, India, with Akhaura in Bangladesh. Since Bangladesh is not a member of ASEAN (it is a member of SAARC and BIMSTEC), this project falls under India-Bangladesh bilateral cooperation, not India-ASEAN cooperation.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
| List I (Project Supported by India) | List II (Country) |
|---|---|
| A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project | 1. Maldives |
| B. Restoration of Stor Palace | 2. Afghanistan |
| C. District Hospital at Dickoya | 3. Bhutan |
| D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies | 4. Sri Lanka |
A: 1, B: 4, C: 2, D: 3
A: 3, B: 2, C: 4, D: 1
A: 3, B: 4, C: 2, D: 1
A: 1, B: 2, C: 4, D: 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When Joint Vision Statement on India - Bhutan Energy Partnership was reported, it made India Development Projects Abroad a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is a 720 MW run-of-river power plant located on the Mangdechhu River in central Bhutan. It was developed with Indian financial and technical assistance and jointly inaugurated by the Prime Ministers of India and Bhutan in 2019. Therefore, A matches with 3.
Restoration of Stor Palace refers to a historic 19th-century palace located in Kabul, Afghanistan (also known as Qasr-e-Storay). India funded its complete restoration in collaboration with the Aga Khan Trust for Culture, and it was jointly inaugurated by the leaders of India and Afghanistan in 2016. Therefore, B matches with 2.
District Hospital at Dickoya is a 150-bed multi-specialty hospital located in Hatton, Sri Lanka. It was built using Indian grant assistance primarily to serve the healthcare needs of the Indian-origin Tamil estate workers in the Central Province. Therefore, C matches with 4.
Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies is located in Addu City, Maldives (now officially inaugurated as the National College of Policing and Law Enforcement or NCPLE). It was constructed entirely with Indian grant assistance under a bilateral Memorandum of Understanding. Therefore, D matches with 1.
Therefore, the correct matching is A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1, which corresponds to Option B.
Matching-list questions reward precision on pairs — watch for swapped superlatives or transposed regions.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct matching is A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1, which corresponds to Option B.
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ?
- Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
- T-90 MK-III Tanks
- Akula Class Submarine
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 and 2
1 and 3
1 only
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
In 21 Apr 2026, Defence Hardware Q93 put Defence Hardware Q93 in the news — the kind of headline UPSC often turns into a Prelims question.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets are manufactured in India. They are produced by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) at its Nashik facility under a licensing and technology-transfer agreement with Russia's Sukhoi. Recent contracts for the jets feature over 60% indigenous content.
Statement 2 is Correct
The T-90 MK-III Tanks (Bhishma) are manufactured in India. These main battle tanks are produced by the state-owned Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL) at the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF) in Avadi, Tamil Nadu, under a Russian license. The Indian Army recently began receiving the latest Mk-III variants from HVF.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
The Akula Class Submarine is not manufactured in India. The Akula-class is a series of nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs) designed and built entirely in Russia. India does not manufacture them; rather, the Indian Navy has historically leased them from Russia (e.g., INS Chakra, leased in 2012 and returned in 2021) to train its crew and bolster its underwater capabilities.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: A
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :
- The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
- The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
- The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When India assumes Chair of Colombo Process for 2024 | Akashvani News was reported, it made Colombo Process Q94 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process comprising 12 Asian member states that are primarily countries of origin for migrant workers. It operates as a voluntary forum where decisions are made by consensus, but they are strictly non-binding in nature, not binding.
Statement 2 is Correct
The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (ADD) is a voluntary and non-binding inter-governmental consultative process established in 2008. It brings together Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on temporary contractual labour mobility, aiming to ensure safe and orderly labour migration.
Statement 3 is Correct
The Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) was established following a proposal by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan at the 2006 UN General Assembly High-Level Dialogue on International Migration and Development. It is a state-led, voluntary, informal, and non-binding process operating outside the formal UN system to discuss the linkages between migration and development.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ?
- It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
- It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
- National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When National Green Hydrogen Mission was reported, it made National Green Hydrogen Mission a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Hydrogen obtained from fossil fuels (primarily natural gas) through steam methane reforming, where the resulting carbon emissions are captured and stored using Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) technologies, is known as Blue Hydrogen, not Green Hydrogen.
Statement 2 is Correct
Green Hydrogen is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen via electrolysis, using electricity generated entirely from renewable energy sources (such as solar or wind). It is a completely zero-emission process.
Statement 3 is Correct
The National Green Hydrogen Mission launched by the Government of India has set quantified targets for 2030. It aims to develop a green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per annum. This will lead to the abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030, alongside reducing fossil fuel imports and creating over 6 lakh jobs.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme :
- The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
- Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
- Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When PARLIAMENT QUESTION: COOPERATION WITH PRIVATE SECTOR IN SPACE DEVELOPMENT was reported, it made IN-SPACe Agnikul Skyroot a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) was established in 2020 as an autonomous, single-window nodal agency under the Department of Space (DOS). Its primary mandate is to promote, authorize, and facilitate the participation of private entities in India's space sector, acting as a bridge between ISRO and private players.
Statement 2 is Correct
In May 2024, the Chennai-based space startup Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched the Agnibaan SOrTeD suborbital rocket from its private launchpad in Sriharikota. This historic mission marked the world’s first flight powered by a single-piece, fully 3D-printed rocket engine (a semi-cryogenic engine named Agnilet).
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Skyroot Aerospace is a prominent private Indian startup that develops its own independent launch vehicles (the Vikram series) and engines. However, it does not develop fuel or engines for the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV). The GSLV is an ISRO-owned heavy-lift rocket, and its liquid and cryogenic stages and fuels are developed entirely in-house by ISRO (e.g., via the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre).
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
| List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) | List II (Location) |
|---|---|
| A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. NOIDA |
| B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. Bengaluru |
| C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. Colombo |
| D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. Thimphu |
A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3
A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When List of Initiatives : Prime Minister’s participation in the 6th BIMSTEC SUMMIT was reported, it made BIMSTEC Centres Match Q97 a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Explanation
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) has established several specialized centres to foster regional cooperation. The correct matching of these centres with their locations is as follows:
- BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory (BCIO): Located in Thimphu, Bhutan. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for its establishment was signed during the Third BIMSTEC Summit in 2014 to promote cultural cooperation and preserve heritage.
- BIMSTEC Energy Centre (BEC): Located in Bengaluru, India. Housed at the Central Power Research Institute, it coordinates regional energy cooperation, capacity building, and acts as the Secretariat for the BIMSTEC Grid Interconnection Coordination Committee.
- BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate (BCWC): Located in NOIDA, Uttar Pradesh, India. It is hosted at the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF) to enhance regional cooperation in weather prediction, climate modeling, and disaster preparedness.
- BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility (TTF): Located in Colombo, Sri Lanka. The Memorandum of Association (MoA) for its establishment was signed during the Fifth BIMSTEC Summit in 2022 to facilitate technology sharing, innovation, and capacity building among member states.
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to the correct option.
Matching-list questions reward precision on pairs — watch for swapped superlatives or transposed regions.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to the correct option.
Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ?
- It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
- The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
- Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When GenomeIndia was reported, it made GenomeIndia a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The GenomeIndia Project is an independent, pan-India initiative launched in January 2020. It is not a part of the international Human Genome Project (which was a global effort that ran from 1990 to 2003). Instead, it was inspired by the Human Genome Project to address the historical underrepresentation of Indian genetics in global databases.
Statement 2 is Correct
The project is officially funded and spearheaded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
Statement 3 is Correct
Its core objective is to map and build a comprehensive catalogue of the genetic diversity of the Indian population. The project successfully sequenced 10,000 whole genomes from 99 distinct ethnic, social, and linguistic groups across India to create a reference genome for the Indian population.
Therefore, Option B is correct.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, Option B is correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?
- It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.
- Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When PARLIAMENT QUESTION: NATIONAL QUANTUM MISSION (NQM) was reported, it made National Quantum Mission a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Correct
The National Quantum Mission (NQM) aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 to 1000 physical qubits within 8 years. Specifically, it targets 50–100 physical qubits in 5 years and scales up to 50–1000 physical qubits in 8 years using platforms like superconducting and photonic technology.
Statement 2 is Correct
The implementation of the mission explicitly includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and national R&D institutes across India. These hubs focus on distinct technology verticals: Quantum Computing (led by IISc Bengaluru), Quantum Communication (led by IIT Madras), Quantum Sensing & Metrology (led by IIT Bombay), and Quantum Materials & Devices (led by IIT Delhi).
Therefore, both statements are correct.
Correct Answer: C
Therefore, both statements are correct.
Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?
- It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
- Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
- Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Why This Question Was Asked
When PARLIAMENT QUESTION: DEEP SEA CLEANING was reported, it made Deep Ocean Mission a live current-affairs theme for Prelims.
Analysing the Question
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) is a flagship initiative launched and implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Statement 2 is Correct
Matsya-6000 is an indigenous manned submersible vehicle developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT). It is specifically designed to carry 3 people (aquanauts) in a titanium alloy sphere to a depth of 6,000 meters for deep-sea exploration, including the study of marine biodiversity and the mining of rare minerals like polymetallic nodules.
Statement 3 is Correct
Samudrayaan is India's first manned deep-sea ocean mission and is a primary sub-project under the broader Deep Ocean Mission.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: B
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.